read slightly below that
that’s a non sequitur
my solution was
solution
there are infinite perfect squares m
let n = (m^2) / 4 + m
n = (m/2)^2 + (sqrt(m)) ^ 2
n + 1 = (m/2 + 1)^2 + 0^2
n + 2 = (m/2 + 1)^2 + 1^2
thats irrelevant
yeah i knew all that
i do think you could do it with a number theory argument. every number that’s 0, 1, or 2 mod 4 can be written as the sum of two perfect squares i think. it’s impossible for any number that’s 3 mod 4 to be the sum of two perfect squares at the very least so n has to be 0 mod 4
12 isn’t the sum of two squares
okay this seems false idt you can write 6 as the sum of two perfect squares. not every case. but the argument’s there
n has to be 0 mod 4. you can do something with that
number theory rules all
there are infinitely many such cases
Very sad! Infinitely many such cases!
give me 3 hours at this and i can write down a vaguely plausible sounding solution
nyaaaaaaaaaaaa open my spoiler
i did. it’s not number theory. unfun
oh I guess I rely on m being divisible by 2 as well (which is fine tho)
well it is. but it’s not the number theory i was thinking of. i do think you could do it that way
NYAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA I haven’t taken number theory (sad)
well every perfect square is either 0 or 1 mod 4. you can use that (that also trivially explains why 3 mod 4 can never be the sum of two perfect squares)
i love modular arithmetic